KJV-Only Question

If the Lord can give his elect the ability to understand Elizabethan English so they can read the King James Version, why can’t he (or why doesn’t he) give them the ability to read Greek and Hebrew and eliminate the need for a translation altogether?

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About Michael R. Jones

Pastor and PhD candidate writing on Paul's theology of suffering.
This entry was posted in KJV-Only, Translations. Bookmark the permalink.

One Response to KJV-Only Question

  1. that’s a very good question…

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